392 — We were told by Sulaymān ibn Dāwūd: We were told by Ismāʿīl ibn Jaʿfar al-Madanī, from Abū Suhayl Nāfiʿ ibn Mālik ibn Abī ʿĀmir, with his chain of transmission, this same ḥadīth. He said: “He has succeeded, by his father, if he is truthful — he has entered Paradise, by his father, if he is truthful.”(1)

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= “Disheveled hair”: the meaning is that his hair was scattered from abandoning luxury, and in this there is an indication that his arrival as a deputation was recent. “A loud voice”: a raised, repeated sound that was not understood, and it was only so because he called out from a distance.

(1) Its chain of transmission is sound.
Muslim transmitted it (11) (9) from Yaḥyā ibn Ayyūb and Qutaybah ibn Saʿīd, from Ismāʿīl ibn Jaʿfar, with this chain.
Al-Bukhārī transmitted it without his saying “by his father” (1891) from Qutaybah, and al-Nasāʾī in al-Mujtabā (2090) from ʿAlī ibn Ḥujr — both from Ismāʿīl ibn Jaʿfar, with it.
It was also transmitted with the wording “by his father” by al-Dārimī (1578), Muslim (11) (9), al-Nasāʾī in al-Kubrā (2411), Ibn Khuzaymah (306), al-Bayhaqī 4/666, and the author at no. (3252), via Ismāʿīl ibn Jaʿfar with this chain.

Regarding his saying “by his father,” Ibn ʿAbd al-Barr said in al-Tamhīd 14/367: This is an unauthenticated expression from the ḥadīth of one whose testimony is accepted as evidence. Mālik and others transmitted this ḥadīth from Abū Suhayl, and they did not say this in it. This ḥadīth has also been transmitted from Ismāʿīl ibn Jaʿfar containing: “He has succeeded, by Allah, if he is truthful — or he has entered Paradise, by Allah, if he is truthful.” And this is more appropriate than the narration of those who transmitted “by his father,” because it is an objectionable expression that the sound traditions reject.

He also said in 16/158: If it is authentic, then it is abrogated, due to the Prophet’s — may Allah bless him and grant him peace — prohibition of swearing by fathers and by other than Allah.

Al-Ḥāfiẓ said in al-Fatḥ 3/108: If it is said: What reconciles this with the prohibition of swearing by fathers? The answer is that that was before the prohibition, or that it is a phrase that flows on the tongue without intending an oath by it, just as their tongues uttered “ʿaqrā ḥalqā” and the like, or that the name of the Lord is implied in it, as if he said: “by the Lord of his father.” And it was said: it is specific [to this case], and that requires evidence. Al-Suhaylī related from one of his teachers that he said: it is a scribal corruption, and it was only “by Allah” (wa-llāhi), with the two lāms shortened. And he disapproved of [the other reading].